Get 100 Previous year Nursing MCQs with answers for competitive and Government exams. Perfect for quick revision, practice and exam preparation. Boost your score with these high-yield questions. find the more Nursing Question Papers Click Here
Q1. Which is the largest organ of the body?
(A) Liver
(B) Brain
(C) Kidney
(D) Skin
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Skin
Q2. The body of an adult person weighs 60 kg. Total body fluid in him is –
(A) 54 kg
(B) 48 kg
(C) 38 kg
(D) 28 kg
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 38 kg
Q3. The example of ECF is –
(A) CSF
(B) Blood
(C) Interstitial fluid
(D) All of these
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
Q4. Correct order of layers of epidermis from outer to inner is –
(A) Corneum–lucidum–granulosum–germinative
(B) Corneum–granulosum–lucidum–germinative
(C) Germinative–granulosum–corneum–lucidum
(D) Germinative–corneum–lucidum–granulosum
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q5. The cell from which the human body develops is –
(A) Ovary
(B) Ovum
(C) Zygote
(D) Sperm
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Zygote
Q6. The epithelial tissue lining the urinary bladder is –
(A) Squamous
(B) Columnar
(C) Ciliated
(D) Transitional
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Transitional
Q7. The epithelial tissue in uterine tubes is –
(A) Squamous
(B) Columnar
(C) Ciliated
(D) Transitional
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ciliated
Q8. The master endocrine gland controlling other glands is –
(A) Adrenal
(B) Pancreas
(C) Pituitary
(D) Thyroid
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Pituitary
Previous year Nursing MCQs with answers
Q9. The bone not forming the boundary of the cranial cavity –
(A) Parietal
(B) Sphenoid
(C) Mandibular
(D) Temporal
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Mandibular
Q10. Substance involved in inflammation is –
(A) Renin
(B) Histamine
(C) Heparin
(D) Thyroxine
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Histamine
Q11. Volume of voice depends on –
(A) Length of vocal cords
(B) Force of vibration
(C) Shape of mouth
(D) Tightness of cords
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q12. Number of polar bodies released during ovum discharge –
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q13. Symptoms of acute respiratory failure include –
(A) Hypercapnia
(B) Hypoventilation
(C) Hypoxia
(D) All of these
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
Q14. Partial pressure of O₂ in deoxygenated & oxygenated blood –
(A) 100 & 140 mmHg
(B) 60 & 120 mmHg
(C) 40 & 100 mmHg
(D) 20 & 60 mmHg
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q15. Life span of sperm –
(A) 48–72 hours
(B) 24–48 hours
(C) 12–24 hours
(D) 0–12 hours
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q16. Congenital absence/closure of a normal opening –
(A) Fistula
(B) Atresia
(C) Hernia
(D) Stenosis
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q17. Largest air volume expelled during maximal expiration –
(A) Expiratory reserve volume
(B) Residual volume
(C) Inspiratory reserve volume
(D) Tidal volume
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q18. Widely distributed tissue in the body –
(A) Muscular
(B) Lymph
(C) Connective
(D) Cartilage
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q19. Eating behaviour controlled by –
(A) Pancreas
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Thyroid
(D) Pineal gland
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q20. Synthesis of glucose from fats –
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Gluconeogenesis
(C) Krebs cycle
(D) Saponification
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Previous year Nursing MCQs with answers
Q21. Glenohumeral joint is –
(A) Hip
(B) Knee
(C) Shoulder
(D) Elbow
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q22. Emergency universal donor blood group –
(A) O negative
(B) O positive
(C) AB negative
(D) AB positive
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q23. Major bone constituent –
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Sodium chloride
(C) Magnesium sulphate
(D) Calcium phosphate
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
Q24. Protein factory of cell –
(A) Nucleus
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Golgi body
(D) Ribosome
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
Q25. Posterior pituitary mainly consists of –
(A) T cells
(B) C cells
(C) Neuronal projections
(D) Beta cells
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q26. Bell’s palsy involves cranial nerve –
(A) 9th
(B) 7th
(C) 5th
(D) 3rd
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q27. Body temperature is controlled by –
(A) Pons
(B) Amygdala
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Liver
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q28. Adam’s apple is formed by –
(A) Epiglottis
(B) Cricoid
(C) Thyroid cartilage
(D) Hyoid bone
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q29. Depolarisation due to –
(A) Opening K⁺ channels
(B) Opening Na⁺ channels
(C) Opening Ca²⁺ channels
(D) Closing Na⁺ channels
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q30. Recommended nasal cannula O₂ flow rate –
(A) 1–4 L/min
(B) 1–6 L/min
(C) 4–6 L/min
(D) 6–8 L/min
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Previous year Nursing MCQs with answers
Q31. IV cannula size for neonate –
(A) 24G
(B) 22G
(C) 20G
(D) 18G
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q32. Not a physician-prescribed intervention –
(A) Drug administration
(B) Ordering tests
(C) Wound care
(D) Elevating edematous limb
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
Q33. Nursing practice is regulated by –
(A) State Nurse Practice Act
(B) Institutional policies
(C) Federal guidelines
(D) International Code
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q34. Kussmaul breathing seen in –
(A) Atelectasis
(B) Asthma
(C) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(D) Heart failure
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q35. Rhythmic waxing–waning respiration –
(A) Hyperventilation
(B) Hypoventilation
(C) Orthopnea
(D) Cheyne–Stokes
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
Q36. Size of ET tube for 2–3 kg newborn –
(A) 4.0
(B) 3.5
(C) 3.0
(D) 2.5
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q37. Clinical death is also known as –
(A) Biological death
(B) Brain death
(C) Legal death
(D) Accidental death
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q38. Treatment of severe dehydration –
(A) DNS
(B) Colloids
(C) Ringer’s Lactate
(D) 5% Dextrose + RL
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q39. Common complication of perforated appendix –
(A) Hemorrhage
(B) Peritonitis
(C) PID
(D) Intestinal obstruction
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q40. Burrows in finger webs etc. caused by –
(A) Scabies
(B) Impetigo
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Herpes zoster
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Previous year Nursing MCQs with answers
Q41. DVT risk –
(A) Pulmonary embolism
(B) Shock
(C) Stroke
(D) Heart attack
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q42. CPR & defibrillation indicated in –
(A) AV block
(B) PVC
(C) Atrial fibrillation
(D) Ventricular fibrillation
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
Q43. Severe dyspnea + frothy sputum seen in –
(A) Left heart failure
(B) Right heart failure
(C) Pulmonary edema
(D) CHF
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q44. Early sign of laryngeal cancer –
(A) Stomatitis
(B) Hoarseness
(C) Dysphagia
(D) Airway obstruction
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q45. Paradoxical respiration occurs in –
(A) Flail chest
(B) Obstructive airway disease
(C) Cardiac tamponade
(D) CHF
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q46. Early sign of hypocalcemia –
(A) Memory changes
(B) Tingling in fingers
(C) Ventricular dysrhythmias
(D) Depressed reflexes
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q47. Platelet lifespan –
(A) 10–12 min
(B) 10–12 hrs
(C) 10–12 days
(D) 10–12 months
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q48. RBC lifespan –
(A) 120 min
(B) 120 hrs
(C) 120 days
(D) 120 months
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q49. Enucleated blood cells –
(A) RBC
(B) WBC
(C) Platelets
(D) Both RBC & Platelets
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
Q50. Edema in liver failure treated with –
(A) Diuretics
(B) Laxatives
(C) Antidiuretics
(D) Beta blockers
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Previous year Nursing MCQs with answers
Q51. Drug of choice for MRSA –
(A) Clindamycin
(B) Vancomycin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Gentamycin
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q52. Antitubercular drug causing peripheral neuritis –
(A) Pyrazinamide
(B) Isoniazid
(C) Rifampicin
(D) Ethambutol
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q53. Unconscious, pinpoint pupils → give –
(A) Naloxone
(B) Lorazepam
(C) Flumazenil
(D) Naltrexone
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q54. LMWH route –
(A) Oral
(B) IM
(C) IV
(D) SC
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
Q55. Gray baby syndrome caused by –
(A) Chloramphenicol
(B) Gentamycin
(C) Penicillin
(D) Tetracycline
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q56. NOT a side effect of salbutamol –
(A) Muscle tremors
(B) Sedation
(C) Palpitation
(D) Nervousness
Correct Answer: (B)
Q57. Drug for severe malaria –
(A) Quinine
(B) Artesunate
(C) Primaquine
(D) Chloroquine
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q58. Heparin antidote –
(A) Protamine sulphate
(B) Vitamin K
(C) Aminocaproic acid
(D) Amiodarone
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q59. Correlation coefficient range –
(A) –0.5 to +0.5
(B) –0.75 to +0.75
(C) < –1 to < +1
(D) None
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q60. Constant presence of disease in area –
(A) Sporadic
(B) Epidemic
(C) Endemic
(D) Pandemic
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Previous year Nursing MCQs with answers
Q61. Koplik spots seen in –
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Pertussis
(C) Cholera
(D) Measles
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
Q62. Not a vital statistic –
(A) Birth rate
(B) Morbidity & Mortality
(C) Educational rate
(D) Life expectancy
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q63. Route of PPD for Tuberculin test –
(A) SC
(B) ID
(C) IM
(D) IV
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q64. First referral level –
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Primordial
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q65. Diseases spread by housefly –
(A) Diarrhea
(B) Dysentery
(C) Cholera
(D) All
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
Q66. Mental Health Act year –
(A) 1912
(B) 1985
(C) 1987
(D) 1990
Correct Answer: (C)
Q67. ORS should be used within –
(A) 24 hrs
(B) 48 hrs
(C) 12 hrs
(D) 6 hrs
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q68. Cervical ripeness assessed by –
(A) Bishop score
(B) Apgar score
(C) Downes score
(D) Ballard score
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q69. Uterus palpable at symphysis pubis at –
(A) 8th week
(B) 10th week
(C) 12th week
(D) 14th week
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q70. Duration of uterine involution –
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Previous year Nursing MCQs with answers
Q71. Lochia rubra lasts for –
(A) 1–3 days
(B) 4–7 days
(C) 7–14 days
(D) 14–21 days
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 1–3 days
Q72. During pregnancy, iron requirement increases due to –
(A) Fetal growth
(B) Increased RBC mass
(C) Placental growth
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q73. Earliest sign of pregnancy is –
(A) Quickening
(B) Amenorrhea
(C) Breast changes
(D) Nausea & vomiting
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Amenorrhea
Q74. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy –
(A) Isthmus
(B) Fimbrial end
(C) Ampulla
(D) Interstitial part
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Ampulla
Q75. Puerperium lasts for –
(A) 1 week
(B) 2 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 3 months
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 6 weeks
Q76. Drug of choice for eclampsia –
(A) Diazepam
(B) Phenytoin
(C) Magnesium sulphate
(D) Phenobarbitone
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Magnesium sulphate
Q77. Fetal skull bone that lies over the cervical os first in vertex presentation –
(A) Occiput
(B) Parietal bone
(C) Frontal bone
(D) Temporal bone
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Parietal bone
Q78. Best position for pregnant woman to avoid supine hypotension –
(A) Supine
(B) Prone
(C) Left lateral
(D) Right lateral
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Left lateral
Q79. Fetal movement first felt by mother (quickening) –
(A) 10 weeks
(B) 14 weeks
(C) 16–20 weeks
(D) 20–24 weeks
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 16–20 weeks
Q80. Hormone responsible for milk ejection –
(A) Prolactin
(B) Estrogen
(C) Oxytocin
(D) Progesterone
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Oxytocin
Previous year Nursing MCQs with answers
Q81. Test for Rh incompatibility in newborn –
(A) Coombs test
(B) VDRL
(C) TORCH test
(D) ELISA
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Coombs test
Q82. Apgar score is recorded at –
(A) 1 and 2 minutes
(B) 1 and 5 minutes
(C) 2 and 10 minutes
(D) 5 and 10 minutes
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 1 and 5 minutes
Q83. Normal range of amniotic fluid at term –
(A) 200–300 ml
(B) 300–500 ml
(C) 700–800 ml
(D) 1000–1200 ml
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 700–800 ml
Q84. Cord clamping should be done –
(A) Immediately after birth
(B) After 1 minute
(C) After cord stops pulsating
(D) After placenta delivery
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) After cord stops pulsating
Q85. Newborn resuscitation initial step –
(A) Suction
(B) Provide warmth
(C) Give oxygen
(D) Start CPR
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Provide warmth
Q86. Respiratory distress syndrome in newborn is due to deficiency of –
(A) Surfactant
(B) Mucus
(C) Oxygen
(D) Enzymes
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Surfactant
Q87. Average weight of newborn –
(A) 1.5–2 kg
(B) 2–2.5 kg
(C) 2.5–3 kg
(D) 3.5–4 kg
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2.5–3 kg
Q88. Exclusive breastfeeding recommended for –
(A) 3 months
(B) 4 months
(C) 5 months
(D) 6 months
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D) 6 months
Q89. Vaccine given at birth –
(A) DPT
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Polio (OPV-0)
(D) Both (B) and (C)
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Both B & C
Q90. Most common site for IM injection in infants –
(A) Deltoid
(B) Dorsogluteal
(C) Ventrogluteal
(D) Vastus lateralis
View Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Vastus lateralis
Q91. The most common cause of neonatal sepsis –
(A) E. coli
(B) Staph aureus
(C) Streptococcus
(D) Klebsiella
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A) E. coli
Q92. Vitamin K injection prevents –
(A) Neonatal jaundice
(B) Respiratory distress
(C) Hemorrhagic disease of newborn
(D) Hypothermia
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q93. Growth monitoring of child uses –
(A) Ballard score
(B) Apgar score
(C) Growth chart
(D) Denver scale
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q94. Best indicator of protein-energy malnutrition –
(A) Height
(B) Weight-for-age
(C) Mid-arm circumference
(D) Head circumference
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q95. UMN lesion causes –
(A) Flaccid paralysis
(B) Spastic paralysis
(C) No paralysis
(D) Fasciculations
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q96. Babinski sign is positive in –
(A) Lower motor neuron lesion
(B) Upper motor neuron lesion
(C) Peripheral neuropathy
(D) Normal adult
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B)
Q97. TB diagnosis confirmed by –
(A) X-ray
(B) Mantoux test
(C) Sputum microscopy
(D) PCR
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q98. Active immunity develops after –
(A) Vaccination
(B) Breast milk
(C) Placenta
(D) Immunoglobulin injection
View Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
Q99. The most common cause of anemia worldwide –
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Pernicious anemia
(C) Iron deficiency
(D) Aplastic anemia
View Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Q100. The universal precaution used to prevent infection is –
(A) Wearing gloves
(B) Handwashing
(C) Using mask
(D) Using gown
View Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Handwashing
