Staff Nurse NORCET 2023 Solved Question Paper – Free Download for Nursing Students!
Get your hands on the NORCET 1CRE AIIMS 2023 Memory-Based Paper, a goldmine for nursing competitive exam prep. This paper contains 172 important MCQs with verified answers—direct from the actual exam. Topics include GTPAL scoring, WHO hand hygiene, phototherapy, CPR guidelines, shock management, and much more.
🎯 Ideal for:
- NORCET (Nursing Officer Recruitment Common Eligibility Test)
- AIIMS Nursing Officer Exam
- State CHO & Staff Nurse Exams MCQ Series
- Any nursing competitive test
Staff Nurse NORCET 2023 Solved Question Paper PDF (172 MCQs)
Section A: Nursing Subjects
1. A pregnant client comes to the office for her first prenatal examination at 10 weeks. She has been pregnant twice before, the first delivery produced a viable baby girl at 39 weeks 3 years ago; the second pregnancy produced a viable baby boy at 36 weeks 2 years ago. Both children are living and well. Using the GTPAL system to record her obstetrical history, the nurse should record?
Options:
a. 3-2-0-0-2
b. 2-2-0-2-2
c. 3-1-1-0-2
d. 2-1-1-0-2
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: G=3 (current pregnancy is third), T=1 (one term delivery), P=1 (one preterm), A=0, L=2 (two living children)
2. A client is admitted to the hospital for an induction of labor owing to a gestation of 42 weeks confirmed by dates and ultrasound. When she is dilated 3 cm, she has a contraction of 70 seconds. She is receiving oxytocin. The nurse’s first intervention should be to?
Options:
a. Check FHR
b. Notify the attending physician
c. Turn off the IV Oxytocin
d. Prepare for the delivery because the client is probably in transition phase
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Contractions should not exceed 60 seconds during induction. 70-second contractions in latent phase are abnormal; turn off oxytocin first
3.0Which of the following step is not included in surgical safety checklist?
Options:
a. Time in
b. Time out
c. Sign in
d. Sign out
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: WHO surgical safety checklist includes Sign In, Time Out, Sign Out. “Time in” is not included.
4. All of the following are correct about WHO 5 hand hygiene movement, EXCEPT?
Options:
a. After touching the patient
b. Before touching the patient
c. Before touching patient surrounding
d. Before do any procedure
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: WHO 5 moments: before touching patient, before clean procedure, after body fluid exposure risk, after touching patient, after touching patient surroundings.
5.After liver biopsy, the patient should be placed in?
Options:
a. Supine position
b. Prone position
c. Right lateral position
d. High Fowler position
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: After liver biopsy, place patient in right lateral position with pillow under puncture site to prevent hemorrhage.
6. What is the best position to keep a 12-year-old child after a lumbar puncture to assess CSF?
Options:
a. Semi-fowlers so that the child can watch TV and be entertained
b. Prone position for several hours so as to prevent a headache
c. On her right side to prevent leak of CSF
d. Prone for two hours to prevent vomiting and aspiration
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Post-lumbar puncture, place prone for 2 hours to prevent headache, then side-lying or flat for 2–3 hours.
7. When teaching a mother of a 4-month-old with diarrhoea about the importance of preventing dehydration, the nurse would inform the mother about the importance of feeding her child?
Options:
a. Fruit juices
b. Diluted carbonated drinks
c. Soy-based, lactose-free formula
d. Regular formulas mixed with electrolyte solutions
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Soy-based lactose-free formula reduces stool output and duration of diarrhea.
8. Prior to administration of antibiotics there is need to sensitivity test. Which of the following antibiotic is not required sensitivity test?
Options:
a. Metronidazole
b. Meropenem
c. Cefperazone
d. Amoxicillin
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Metronidazole does not require sensitivity test
9. A client with a cervical spine fracture at C1 level has just arrived in the emergency room. The primary nursing intervention would be?
Options:
a. Stabilization of the cervical spine
b. Airway assessment and stabilization
c. Confirmation of spinal cord injury
d. Normalization of intravascular volume
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Primary intervention is airway protection and ventilation (jaw thrust if cervical injury suspected)
10. A client is being discharged with albuterol and beclomethasone dipropionate to be administered via inhalation three times a day and at bedtime. Client teaching regarding the sequential order in which the drugs should be administered includes?
Options:
a. Glucocorticoids followed by the bronchodilator
b. Bronchodilator followed by the glucocorticoids
c. Alternate successive administrations
d. According to the client’s preference
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Bronchodilator first opens airways, then glucocorticoid for better penetration.
11. A client with a diagnosis of C-4 injury has been stabilized and is ready for discharge. Because this client is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia, he and his family should be instructed to assess for and report about?
Options:
a. Dizziness and tachypnea
b. Circumoral pallor and light-headedness
c. Headache and facial flushing
d. Pallor and itching of the face and neck
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Autonomic dysreflexia symptoms: headache, facial flushing, hypertension, bradycardia.
12. Which of the following is an indication of phototherapy in a new born with hyperbilirubinemia?
Options:
a. Bilirubin level 12.5 mg/dl
b. Bilirubin level 15 mg/dl
c. Bilirubin level 20 mg/dl
d. Bilirubin level 22 mg/dl
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: In term newborn: phototherapy indicated if bilirubin >15 mg/dl.
13. A 35-weeks-pregnant client is undergoing a non-stress test (NST). During the 20-minute examination, the nurse notes three foetal movements accompanied by accelerations of the foetal heart rate, each 15 bpm, and lasting for 15 seconds. The nurse interprets this test to be?
Options:
a. Nonreactive
b. Reactive
c. Positive
d. Negative
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Reactive NST: ≥2 accelerations of ≥15 bpm for ≥15 seconds in 20 minutes.
14. Which of the following electrolytes should monitor in a patient with congestive heart failure receiving digoxin and furosemide?
Options:
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Zink
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Potassium should be monitored due to risk of hypokalemia with digoxin and furosemide.
15. During CPR, the rescuers should change their position?
Options:
a. Every three minutes or after two cycles of CPR
b. Every two minutes or five cycles of CPR
c. Every five minutes or two cycles of CPR
d. Every one minute or two cycles of CPR
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Rescuers change position every 2 minutes or after 5 cycles to prevent fatigue.
16. The chest compression and ventilation ratio should maintain in neonatal resuscitation?
Options:
a. 3:1 ratio of 90 chest compression and ventilation every 30 seconds
b. 1:1 ratio of 90 chest compression and ventilation every 90 seconds
c. 3:1 ratio of 60 chest compression and ventilation every 20 seconds
d. 2:1 ratio of 90 chest compression and ventilation every 45 seconds
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Neonatal resuscitation ratio is 3:1 (90 compressions:30 ventilations per minute)
17. Intra muscular injections in neonates should give in?
Options:
a. Dorsogluteal muscle
b. Vastus lateralis muscle
c. Gluteus maximum muscle
d. Deltoid muscle
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Vastus lateralis is preferred for IM injections in neonates.
18. What is the normal plasma osmolality ranges in adult?
Options:
a. 260-270 mOsm/L
b. 280-290 mOsm/L
c. 320-330 mOsm/L
d. 300-310 mOsm/L
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Normal plasma osmolality is 280–290 mOsm/L.
19. Which of the following clinical features would be seen in a client with dengue haemorrhagic fever, EXCEPT?
Options:
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Leucocytosis
c. Lymphadenopathy
d. Fever
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Dengue causes leukopenia, not leukocytosis.
20. A paediatric patient would receive 500 ml DNS through burette infusion set in 5 hours. Calculate the correct fluid drops per minute?
Options:
a. 100 macro drops per minute
b. 100 micro drops per minute
c. 80 macro drops per minute
d. 80 micro drops per minute
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Calculation: (500 × 60) / (5 × 60) = 100 micro drops/minute (burette = micro drip).
21. Which of the following ECG finding would be seen in a patient with kidney failure with potassium level 6.3 mg/dl?
Options:
a. Flattened T wave
b. Peaked T wave
c. ST segment elevation
d. ST segment depression
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves.
22. An 8-year-old child comes to the physician’s office complaining of swelling and pain in the knees. His mother says, “The swelling occurred for no reason, and it keeps getting worse.” The initial diagnosis is Lyme disease. When talking to the mother and child, questions related to which of the following would be important to include in the initial history?
Options:
a. A decreased urinary output and flank pain
b. A fever of over 103°F occurring over the last 2-3 weeks
c. Rashes covering the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet
d. Headaches, malaise, or sore throat
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Lyme disease symptoms include fever, headache, malaise, fatigue, joint pain.
23. While doing Weber test by tuning fork assessment and checking for vibration sense. Which one of the following frequency tuning fork is commonly used for screening of hearing impairment?
Options:
a. 128 Hz
b. 2056 Hz
c. 512 Hz
d. 1028 Hz
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: 512 Hz tuning fork is commonly used for hearing screening.
24. A 30 years old male patient comes in the surgical OPD with pain, discomfort and swelling around the anus and bleeding per rectum. History is suggestive haemorrhoids. What will be the confirmatory test in OPD?
Options:
a. USG whole abdomen
b. Sigmoidoscopy
c. Proctoscopy
d. Digital rectal examination
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Proctoscopy is confirmatory for hemorrhoids.
25. A 38 years old patient has comes in emergency department with ruptured gall bladder, cholecystectomy has done. The patient is discharged with follow up instructions. After 2-3 weeks the patient comes for follow up in surgical OPD with complain of pain abdomen, generalized tenderness in abdomen, fever etc. What would be the possible complication?
Options:
a. Peritonitis
b. Gastritis
c. Evisceration
d. Dehiscence
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Symptoms suggest peritonitis (rebound tenderness, fever, abdominal pain).
26. To enhance the percutaneous absorption of nitroglycerin patches, it would be MOST important for the nurse to select a site that is which of the following?
Options:
a. Near the heart
b. Non hairy area
c. Muscular
d. Over a bony prominence
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Hair-free skin increases absorption; avoid extremities.
27. A patient in 28-week gestation is receiving labetalol and magnesium sulfate for her pre-eclampsia treatment. On checking her BP you find that it is 86/56. The most likely cause of this finding is?
Options:
a. False reading
b. Accidental overdose of labetalol
c. Magnesium sulphate toxicity
d. Patient is anxious
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Labetalol overdose can cause hypotension.
28. What would be the correct steps to follow in female catheterization?
Options:
a. Clean with betadine – apply lignocaine on tip of catheter – insert catheter – check for urine – inflate the balloon
b. Apply lignocaine on tip of catheter – clean with betadine – insert catheter – inflate the balloon – check for urine
c. Clean with betadin – apply lignocaine on tip of catheter – insert catheter – inflate the balloon – check for urine
d. Clean with betadin – apply lignocaine on tip of catheter – check for urine – insert catheter – inflate the balloon
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Correct sequence: clean → apply lignocaine → insert → check urine → inflate balloon.
29. Which of the following is an example of basal insulin?
Options:
a. Regular insulin
b. NPH insulin
c. Glulisine insulin
d. Degludeo insulin
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Degludec is a long-acting basal insulin.
30. In an adult, the normal blood pressure ranges is?
Options:
a. 130/90 mm hg
b. 110/65 mm hg
c. 120/80 mm hg
d. 140/90 mm hg
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Normal BP is 120/80 mmHg.
31. All of the following are true about ANTRA contraceptive, except?
Options:
a. It is injectable contraceptive
b. It is irreversible
c. Can be used in 15 to 45 years of age group
d. It is available all govt hospital with free of cost
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: ANTRA is reversible, not irreversible.
32. A 1 year old toddler develops symptoms like mild tenderness at injection site, malaise, mild fever and discomfort following DPT immunization. What would be the teaching plan for his parents?
Options:
a. This is appropriate reaction
b. Delayed for Next Immunizations process
c. All the features are enough to take the baby in emergency department
d. Mild reaction and can manage at home
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Mild local and systemic reactions are common after DPT vaccine.
33. When inspecting a cardiovascular client, the nurse notes that he needs to sit upright to breathe. This behaviour is most indicative for?
Options:
a. Pericarditis
b. Anxiety
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Angina
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Orthopnea (needing to sit upright to breathe) is indicative of CHF.
34. On psychiatric interview, a patient had the following thought sample “May I pay I pay I day” is a sample for?
Options:
a. Neologism
b. Clang association
c. Derailment
d. Loosening of association
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Clang association: words chosen for sound rather than meaning.
35. A patient has sudden cardiac arrest. What would be the first line management of the patient?
Options:
a. Check consciousness
b. Check breathing
c. Check pulse
d. Chest compression
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: First step in CPR: check responsiveness (consciousness).
36. Which of the following child has low risk for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?
Options:
a. Child lying on back
b. Has history of previous child has sudden infant death syndrome
c. Child lying on abdomen
d. Child sleeping in side lying
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Supine sleeping reduces SIDS risk; prone increases risk.
37. According to World health organization, severe stunning for low height for age is best described in standard deviation is?
Options:
a. Two standard deviation stunted height for age
b. Three standard deviation stunted height for age
c. Four standard deviation stunted height for age
d. One standard deviation stunted height for age
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Severe stunting: height-for-age z-score < −3 SD.
38. Human development index components include?
Options:
a. Life expectancy at birth, schooling and good standard of living
b. Life expectancy at 1 year, schooling and income
c. Life expectancy at 1 year, infant mortality rate and income
d. Life expectancy at 5 year, infant mortality rate and income
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: HDI components: life expectancy at birth, education (schooling), and standard of living (GNI per capita).
39. A nurse taking care of a patient’s with chest tube drainage suddenly notices that there is no fluctuation in the water seal tube. Which of the following action should the nurse take first?
Options:
a. Turn the patient to the unaffected side
b. Inform the physician
c. Check the tubing to ensure there is no kinking
d. Start milking the chest tube
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: First check for kinking/obstruction in tubing if fluctuation stops.
40. Which of the following is a first priority assessment in CPR?
Options:
a. Chest compression
b. Check breathing
c. Check airway
d. Check consciousness
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: First step in CPR: check responsiveness/consciousness.
41. Which of the following finding is suggestive an abnormal reading in a 4 hours old new born?
Options:
a. Platelets count 200,000
b. WBC count 17000
c. Haemoglobin 18 gm/dl
d. Blood glucose 30 mg/dl
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Newborn blood glucose should be >40 mg/dl; 30 mg/dl is hypoglycemic.
42. A patient is developed mild urticaria and breathlessness. Which of the following medicine would not be prescribed for this patient at this time?
Options:
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Hydrocortisone
c. Chlorpheniramine
d. Dexamethasone
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic, not used for acute allergic reaction.
43. In a 28 year old patient Adrenaline to be infused at the rate of 0.2 mcg/kg/minutes. The weight of the patient is 40 kg. The medicine available in ampoule is 4 mg (2mg/ml) and 2 ampoules to be added in 46 ml Normal saline. How many ml per minute dose would be administered?
Options:
a. 1 ml
b. 2 ml
c. 3 ml
d. None of the above
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Calculation leads to 3 ml/min.
44. In a patient left femoral popliteal bypass grafting surgery has been done. After 6 hours of the procedure, the dorsal pedis pulse of the left leg is not palpable. After further assessment reveals that the leg is feel like cool and pale. What would be the priority nursing action?
Options:
a. Notify to the treating doctor
b. Reposition and reassess the leg
c. Start IV fluid
d. Assess for bleeding
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: First reposition and reassess for pulse; could be positional.
45. While preparing the medicine, a nurse by mistakenly had needle stuck injury. For which disease post exposure prophylaxis measure is not required?
Options:
a. Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis C
c. Tetanus
d. HIV
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Tetanus does not require post-exposure prophylaxis from needle stick.
46. Which of the following is correct sequence of hand washing?
Options:
a. Wet the hands with water, put the soap, scrub the hands, rinse with water, dry the hands with tissue paper
b. Put the soap, wet the hands with water, scrub the hands, rinse the hands with water and dry the hands with tissue paper
c. Wet the hands with water, put the soap, scrub the hands, rinse with water, dry the hands with dryer
d. Wet the hands, scrub the hands, put the soap and rinse with water
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Correct WHO handwashing sequence: wet → soap → scrub → rinse → dry.
47. A 34 weeks woman admitted in labour room with compliant of abdominal pain and fluid is leaking, after assessment reveals that the BP 100/70 mg, PR-86 pbm and membrane has ruptured. What would be the priority nursing action?
Options:
a. Assess FHR
b. Quality of amniotic fluid
c. Check colour and odour of amniotic fluid
d. Begin the labor process immediately
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: First priority after rupture of membranes: assess fetal heart rate.
48. A new nurse is caring for an adolescent in the trauma unit who has injuries secondary to a motor vehicle accident. The nurse has started a blood transfusion. After 30 minutes, the client complains of nausea, headache, chills and muscle stiffness. An observing nurse should determine that the new nurse intervened appropriately when the new nurse took which action first?
Options:
a. Obtained a set of vital signs
b. Called the primary health-care provider
c. Flushed the infusion tubing with normal saline and restarted the blood
d. Stop the transfusion
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: First action in suspected transfusion reaction: stop the transfusion.
49. Recommended dose of adrenaline (epinephrine) during neonatal resuscitation is?
Options:
a. 1 mg/kg body weight (1 ml in 1:1,000 dilution)
b. 0.1 mg/kg body weight (0.1 ml in 1:10,000)
c. 0.01 mg/kg body weight (0.1 ml in 1:10,000)
d. 0.5 mg/kg body weight (0.1 ml in 1:1,000)
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Neonatal dose: 0.01 mg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1:10,000 solution).
50. In a patient neck of the femur fractured. Position of the leg should maintain in?
Options:
a. External rotation less than 45 degree
b. External rotation more than 45 degree
c. Internal rotation less than 45 degree
d. Internal rotation more than 45 degree
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Femoral neck fracture: leg in internal rotation <45°
51. A client is brought to the emergency department reporting chest pain. Assessment shows vital signs that include a blood pressure (BP) of 155/88 mm Hg, pulse 88 beats per minute (BPM), and respirations 20 breaths per minute. The nurse administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. The treatment is found to be effective when the reassessment of vital signs shows which data?
Options:
a. BP 160/70 mm Hg, Pulse-98 BPM, RR-20 breaths per minute
b. BP 90/60 mm Hg, Pulse-48 BPM, RR-24 breaths per minute
c. BP 170/82 mm Hg, Pulse-60 BPM, RR-24 breaths per minute
d. BP 88/56 mm Hg, Pulse-92 BPM, RR-20 breaths per minute
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation and lowers BP; effective if BP drops.
52. Which of the following is the correct height velocity in children aged 2-10 years?
Options:
a. 8-18 cm/year
b. 4-6 cm/year
c. 2-4 cm/year
d. 6-8 cm/year
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Height velocity in children 2–10 years: 6–8 cm/year.
53. A nurse, assessing a client hospitalized following a road traffic accident (RTA), obtains the following vital signs: blood pressure (BP) 80/55 mm Hg, heart rate (HR) 128, respiratory rate (RR) 24 and cool clammy skin and rapid breathing. For which life-threatening complication should the nurse carefully monitor the client?
Options:
a. Hypovolemic shock
b. Neurogenic shock
c. Septic shock
d. Cardiogenic shock
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Symptoms suggest hypovolemic shock (hypotension, tachycardia, cool clammy skin).
54. Nurse Jeremy is evaluating a client’s fluid intake and output record. Fluid intake and urine output should relate in which way?
Options:
a. Fluid intake should be double the urine output
b. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output
c. Fluid intake should be half the urine output
d. Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Normally, fluid intake ≈ urine output.
55. Under five mortality rate is calculated based on?
Options:
a. The number of deaths of children under 5 years per 1,000 live births
b. The number of births of children under 5 years per 1,000 live births
c. The number of deaths of children under 1 years per 1,000 live births
d. The number of births of children under 5 years per 1,000 live births
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Under-5 mortality rate = deaths under 5 per 1,000 live births.
56. Which of the following statements is correct about puberty?
Options:
a. Onset of secondary sexual characteristics before 9 years of age is defined as precocious puberty
b. Cessation of menstrual cycle is known as menarche
c. Onset of secondary sexual characteristics before 16 years of age is defined as precocious puberty
d. Onset of puberty is known as menopause
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Precocious puberty: onset before age 9 in boys, before age 8 in girls.
57. An adult client arrives in the emergency department with burns to both entire legs and the perineal area. Which of the following fluid would be started by on duty nurses?
Options:
a. Ringer lactate
b. Normal saline 0.9%
c. DNS
d. Normal saline 0.45% with dextrose 10%
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Ringer lactate is fluid of choice for burn resuscitation.
58. A nurse’s client, who is in post-operative phase, during assessment obtains the information chills, high grade fever, significantly drop in blood pressure and rapid breathing. Patient may develop septicaemia. Based on the above assessment, which result is abnormal and should be reported to the physician?
Options:
a. WBCs: 18,000/mm³
b. Glucose: 78 gm/dl
c. Haemoglobin: 13.2 g/dl
d. Platelets: 1,500,000/mm³
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: WBC 18,000 indicates leukocytosis (infection/sepsis).
59. The nurse is inserting nasogastric tube to a client, tube is inserting gently downwards and it reached nasopharynx and there is slightly resistance occurs. What would be the nurse’s next action?
Options:
a. Withdraw the tube
b. Wait for 5 minutes and further insert the tube
c. Instruct the patient to swallow or engulf
d. Notify the physician
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: If resistance at nasopharynx, ask patient to swallow to help passage.
60. Which of the following manifestation commonly seen in a patient with thiamine deficiency?
Options:
a. Memory loss
b. Gums bleeding
c. Emotion changes
d. Heart
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Thiamine (B1) deficiency causes memory loss (Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome).
61. nurse is preparing a newborn with a myelomeningocele sac for surgery. The most appropriate intervention to keep the site sterile and protected is to?
Options:
a. Leave the sac as it is, exposing it to air
b. Apply petroleum as a protective covering for the sac
c. Cover the sac with moist, saline dressings
d. Apply dry dressing over the sac
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Myelomeningocele sac should be covered with moist saline dressing pre-op.
62. A client is bleeding excessively after the birth of a neonate. The health care provider orders fundal massage and prescribes an IV infusion containing 10 units of oxytocin (Pitocin) at 100 ml/m. A nurse’s evaluation of the client’s responses to these interventions is BP: 135/90 mm Hg; uterus: boggy at 3 cm above the umbilicus and displaced to the right, perineal pad: saturated with bright red lochia. What is the nurse’s next action?
Options:
a. Increase the infusion rate
b. Assess for a distended bladder
c. Continue to perform fundal massage
d. Continue to assess the blood pressure
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Boggy uterus displaced to right suggests bladder distension; assess bladder first.
63. Which of the following assessment finding after an amniotomy needs to be conducted first?
Options:
a. Cervical dilation
b. Bladder distension
c. Fetal heart rate pattern
d. Maternal blood pressure
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: After amniotomy, first assess FHR for cord compression/prolapse.
64. In the operation theatre, OT in-charge is instructing about scrubbing to the staff nurse. Which is the correct order in preference-1 Gloves 2. Gown 3. Scrub 4. Check Instrument 5. Gauze count
Options:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
c. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
d. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Correct sequence: Scrub → Gown → Gloves → Gauze count → Check instruments.
65. Which of the following needle type used for fix the surgical drain?
Options:
a. Cutting
b. Reverse cutting
c. Round body
d. Tapper point
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Reverse cutting needle is used for securing drains.
66. Which statement is true, except?
Options:
a. FFP can be stored up to 42 days
b. PRBC infused within 4-6 hours
c. Platelets can be stored -20°C
d. PRBC can be stored up to 42 days
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: FFP can be stored up to 1 year at –20°C; 42 days is for PRBC.
67. A patient develops type 2 respiratory failure. Which is a probable cause of this?
Options:
a. Interstitial lung disease
b. Flail chest
c. Pulmonary oedema
d. ARDS
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Type 2 (hypercapnic) failure: causes include flail chest, COPD, drug overdose.
68. In infant/newborn baby, standardised oxygen saturation target range of?
Options:
a. 91-95%
b. 95-97%
c. 97-99%
d. 87-90%
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Target SpO₂ in newborns: 91–95%.
69. All of the following given in a patient with potassium toxicity, EXCEPT?
Options:
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Ipratropium nebulization
c. Insulin dextrose
d. Soda bicarbonate
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Ipratropium is for asthma, not hyperkalemia treatment.
70. A patient may report hearing voice criticizing him every time, he hears the sound of a rotating fan and which stop when the fan is not running. There is which types of hallucination occur?
Options:
a. Functional hallucination
b. Pseudo hallucination
c. Visual hallucination
d. Olfactory hallucination
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Functional hallucination: triggered by a real stimulus (fan sound).
71. A 6 year old baby is kept 4 hours NPO before endoscopy procedure. Which of the following fluid would be prescribed for the baby?
Options:
a. Isolyte-P
b. 10% Dextrose
c. 0.9% NS with 10% Dextrose
d. Ringer lactate
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Isolyte-P is a maintenance IV fluid for children.
72. The nurse is caring for a child with sickle cell-anemia. To prevent thrombus formation in capillaries, as well as other problems from stasis and clotting of blood in the sickling process. The nurse should take which action on priority?
Options:
a. Administer oxygen
b. Increase fluids and hydration level
c. Encourage the child to maintain bed rest
d. Administer prescribed anticoagulants
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Hydration is priority to prevent sickling and thrombosis.
73. A pregnant woman at 28 weeks of gestation visited antenatal clinic at a primary health centre for the first time. Her hemoglobin level was found to be 9 gm%. The therapeutic management will include?
Options:
a. 1 IFA tablet (60 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg folic acid) daily
b. 1 IFA tablet (60 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg folic acid) weekly
c. 2 IFA tablet (60 mg elemental iron and 500 mcg folic acid) daily
d. Daily blood transfusion
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Anemia in pregnancy: therapeutic dose is 2 IFA tablets daily.
74. Which solution causes the shifting of fluid from the cell to intravascular compartment?
Options:
a. Isotonic
b. Hypertonic
c. Hypotonic
d. Diffusion
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Hypertonic solution pulls fluid from cells into intravascular space.
75. Which of the following method is used to clean the insertion site of a surgical drain?
Options:
a. Inner to outer following in circular motion
b. Outer to inner following in circular motion
c. Central to peripheral
d. Bottom to top
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Clean from inner (clean) to outer (dirty) in circular motion.
76. In the following clinical condition “honey like crusts are seen around the mouth in a baby. Identify the following skin disease?
Options:
a. Scabies
b. Impetigo
c. Atopic dermatitis
d. Rashes
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Impetigo presents with honey-colored crusts.
77. By the instruction of Government of India, the Maharashtra Government, which city has renamed as Chhatrpati Sambhaji Nagar?
Options:
a. Dharashiv
b. Aurangabad
c. Ahemadnagar
d. Ahmadabad
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Aurangabad renamed to Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar.
78. Following denote instrument is used in which of the procedure?
Options:
a. Thyroidectomy
b. Mastoidectomy
c. Mastectomy
d. Craniotomy
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Instrument shown is for thyroidectomy.
79. In the following image, identify the clinical condition?
Options:
a. Tinea pedis
b. Tinea corporis
c. Tinea capitus
d. Tinea unguis
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Image shows tinea corporis (ringworm on body).
80. Aspirin is used in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT?
Options:
a. MI
b. Colorectal cancer
c. Liver cancer
d. Stroke
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Aspirin is not used for liver cancer.
81. Which of the following medicine is used for fetal lung maturity?
Options:
a. Betamethasone
b. Indomethacin
c. Terbutaline
d. IFA
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Betamethasone is given for fetal lung maturation.
82. A diagnosis of meningitis is made through the analysis of CSF. Which of the following results would be expected with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
Options:
a. Cloudy CSF, elevated WBC, elevated protein and decreased glucose
b. Clear CSF, decreased WBC, elevated protein and elevated glucose
c. Cloudy CSF, decreased WBC, decreased protein and elevated glucose
d. Clear CSF, elevated WBC, decreased protein and decreased glucose
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Bacterial meningitis: cloudy CSF, high WBC/protein, low glucose.
83. Which is a 30-point questionnaire scale that is used extensively in clinical and research settings to measure cognitive impairment at bed side in psychiatry?
Options:
a. ASRS
b. MMSE
c. BPRS
d. FAST
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination) is a 30-point cognitive screening tool.
84. Which is the best location of apical pulse assessment in an adult patient?
Options:
a. Fourth intercostals space at the right mid axillary line
b. Fourth and Fifth intercostals space at the left mid-clavicular line
c. Fourth intercostals space at the right mid axillary line
d. Fifth intercostals space at the left mid-clavicular line
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Apical pulse in adults: 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line.
85. An emergency room nurse is assessing a 22 years old male who has been using opioids. What symptoms indicate that the client has overdose?
Options:
a. Constricted pupils and hypotension
b. Vomiting and tachycardia
c. Pupillary dilation and hypertensive crisis
d. Tremors and ataxia
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Opioid overdose: pinpoint pupils, hypotension, respiratory depression.
86. Identify the following method of oxygenation which is denoting in image?
Options:
a. Partial re-breather mask
b. Simple oxygen mask
c. Non re-breather mask (NRBM)
d. Venturi mask
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Image shows non-rebreather mask (NRBM).
87. Identify the following radiological finding which is denoting in image?
Options:
a. COPD
b. Pleural effusion
c. Tension Pneumothorax
d. ARDS
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Image shows pleural effusion (fluid in pleural space).
88. Identify the correct cleaning process of urethral meatus for female catheterization
Options:
a. Labia minora front to back
b. Labia majora back to front
c. Whole perineum
d. In circular motion
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Clean labia minora from front to back during catheterization.
89. Identify the following ECG finding which is denoting in photograph?
Options:
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Ventricular tachycardia
c. Atrial flutter
d. SVT
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: ECG shows atrial flutter (sawtooth pattern).
90. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross model for grief, a patient experience with unsurprising symptoms such as sadness and loss of something which is commonly seen during which stage of kubber model?
Options:
a. Denial
b. Depression
c. Anger
d. Acceptance
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Depression stage involves sadness, loss, withdrawal.
91. Which of the following number of surgical blade is used for incision and drainage for a wound abscess?
Options:
a. 11
b. 15
c. 22
d. 10
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Blade no. 11 is used for I&D (incision and drainage).
92. An older male patient receiving normal saline 0.9% through IV line complaining shortness of breath and palpitation. The patient’s assessment finding reveals that central venous pressure (CVP) is 18 cm H2O. What would be the priority nursing intervention?
Options:
a. Continue the IV fluid
b. Increase the flow rate of IV fluid
c. Discontinue the fluid
d. Notify to the physician
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: High CVP (18 cm H2O) suggests fluid overload; stop IV fluid.
93. A new born baby had delivered with lumbo-sacral meningocele. Till the period of surgery, the sac should be well protected by covering it with a sterile gauze piece soaked in?
Options:
a. Spirit
b. Normal saline
c. Methylene blue
d. Betadine
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Meningocele sac covered with saline-soaked gauze to keep moist.
94. A nurse includes the nursing diagnosis of Disturbed thought processes secondary to paranoia in the care plan for a newly admitted client diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which approach is most appropriate for this client?
Options:
a. Avoid laughing or whispering in front of the client
b. Begin to identify social supports in the community
c. Encourage the client to interact with others on the unit
d. Have the client sign a written release of information form
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: With paranoia, avoid behaviors that may increase suspicion (whispering/laughing).
95. Which of the following is TRUE about disinfection in a surgical unit using Glutaraldehyde?
Options:
a. Once prepared can be used for a maximum duration of 7 days
b. 1% glutaraldehyde is used commonly
c. Dilute with water in 1:5 ratio before every use
d. Minimum contact period for disinfection is 20 min
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Glutaraldehyde requires minimum contact time of 20 minutes for disinfection.
96. A patient presented with swelling in front of neck in midline which moves on deglutition. Which among the following will be the MOST likely diagnosis?
Options:
a. Thyroglossal Cyst
b. Solitary thyroid nodule in isthmus
c. Subhyoid bursitis
d. Lipoma
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Thyroglossal cyst moves with swallowing/tongue protrusion.
97. You witness a 5 years old child who is admitted with you having a seizure. Which is an immediate nursing care with most appropriate?
Options:
a. Maintain in lying position, flat surface; turn head to side during seizure activity, give IV midazolam in appropriate dose and begin infusion of IV anticonvulsant
b. Maintain in supine position, give supplemental oxygen, and start IV midazolam in an appropriate dose
c. Maintain in lying position, flat surface; turn head to side during seizure activity: loosen clothing from neck or chest and abdominal areas; suction as needed; supervise supplemental oxygen or bag ventilation
d. Maintain in supine position, flat surface; turn head to side during seizure activity, provide supplemental oxygen and inform the doctor on duty
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: During seizure: position on side, loosen clothing, suction prn, provide oxygen.
98. Which of the following medications have robust evidence for having anti-suicidal properties?
Options:
a. Valproate & Lithium
b. Fluoxetine & Escitalopram
c. Olanzapine & Fluoxetine
d. Lithium & Clozapine
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Lithium and Clozapine have strong anti-suicidal evidence.
99. As per the gazetted guidelines for assessment of persons with disability, which tool is used to assess mental disability for purpose of certification?
Options:
a. Indian Schedule for Disability Assessment
b. Indian Disability and Emotional Assessment Schedule
c. Indian Disability Evaluation and Assessment Scale
d. Indian Scale for Assessment of Mental Illness & Disability
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Indian Disability Evaluation and Assessment Scale (IDEAS) is used.
100. Which of the following is not a sign of dehydration in an infant?
Options:
a. Perineal excoriation
b. Delayed skin pinch
c. Dry mouth
d. Drying of tears
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Perineal excoriation is from diarrhea, not a direct sign of dehydration.
101. A 35 year old farmer brought to emergency with history of multiple time vomiting, loose stool & breathlessness for two hours while he was fumigating his crops. On examination he was drowsy & had excessive salivation, involuntary defecation, pulse rate 46/minute, BP-90/60 mmHg, respiratory rate-14/minute, pupils-bilaterally constricted, twitching in bilateral calf muscles. Chest auscultation revealed bilateral crackles. What is the likely poisoning?
Options:
a. Opioid
b. Almunium phosphide
c. Arsenic
d. Organophosphorus
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Symptoms suggest organophosphorus poisoning (SLUDGE syndrome + muscarinic/nicotinic effects).
102. A patient presenting the signs and symptoms of persecution, suspiciousness, lack of insight may be having?
Options:
a. Paranoid Schizophrenia
b. Simple Schizophrenia
c. Hebephrenic Schizophrenia
d. Undifferentiated Schizophrenia
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Paranoid schizophrenia features delusions of persecution, suspicion.
103. A client with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia is receiving an antipsychotic medication haloperidol. The client is not sitting still and moving inside and outside the ward. For which potentially extra-pyramidal side effect should a nurse monitor the client?
Options:
a. Akathisia
b. Oculogyric crisis
c. Tardive dyskinesia
d. Pseudo parkinsonism
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Akathisia: restlessness, inability to sit still.
103. Kalloo, a 24-year-old occasional alcoholic shows a change in behaviours. He suspects that people are con-spiring in behaviors; he suspects that people are aspir-ing against him though his father states that there is no reason for his fears. He also gets hallucinations of voice commenting on his actions. What is the most probable diagnosis as per ICD-10?
Options:
a. F20-F29
b. F30-F39
c. F40-F49
d. F50-F59
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: ICD-10 F20-F29: Schizophrenia, delusional disorders.
104. A nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with severe diarrhoea with dehydration and is receiving 500 ml dextrose 10% intravenously (IV). How much calorie will get the patient from 500 ml dextrose 10% IV fluid?
Options:
a. 200
b. 100
c. 300
d. 400
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: 10% dextrose = 10 g/100 ml = 100 g/1000 ml; 500 ml = 50 g dextrose. 1 g dextrose = 4 kcal → 50 × 4 = 200 kcal.
106. A nurse is caring an older patient with congestive heart failure. The nurse can anticipate which medicine will prescribe by the health care provider?
Options:
a. Amiodarone
b. Clopidogrel
c. Aspirin
d. Digoxin
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Digoxin is used in CHF for symptom control.
107. A nurse giving dietary instructions to a patient who is at risk of coronary artery disease. Which oil should avoid?
Options:
a. Coconut oil
b. Sunflower oil
c. Olive oil
d. All of the above
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Coconut oil is high in saturated fat; avoid in CAD.
108. Most common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
Options:
a. Tremors
b. Bodyache
c. Diarrhoea
d. Rhinorrhoea
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Tremors are the most common alcohol withdrawal symptom.
109. The nurse knows that in which of the following poisoning case gastric lavage is not recommended?
Options:
a. Arsenic poisoning
b. Corrosive poisoning
c. Organophosphorus poisoning
d. Dhatura poisoning
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Gastric lavage contraindicated in corrosive poisoning (risk of perforation).
110. Best diagnostic measure for the enteric fever in second week of onset of the disease?
Options:
a. Urine
b. Stool
c. Widal
d. Blood
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Widal test is best in second week of enteric fever.
111. Which of the following statement is TRUE about Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)?
Options:
a. Exclusive breastfeeding, early discharge, prevention of hypothermia
b. Early initiation of breastfeeding, early discharge, prevention of hypothermia
c. Exclusive breastfeeding, late discharge, prevention of hypothermia
d. Exclusive breastfeeding, early discharge, prevention of hypoglycaemia
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: KMC involves exclusive breastfeeding, early discharge, thermoregulation.
112. Which of the following drug would be prescribed for a patient who had barium enema?
Options:
a. Laxative
b. Neomycin
c. Antacid
d. Zink
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Laxative given after barium enema to prevent constipation/impaction.
113. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client’s blood sugar is 520 mg/dL. The respiratory assessment finding reveals respiratory rate of 32, with a deep, regular respiratory effort. Which insulin will prescribe by the health care provider?
Options:
a. NPH insulin SC
b. Regular insulin infusion
c. 5% Dextrose IV
d. Sweet juice
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: DKA managed with regular insulin IV infusion.
114. A new born with 15.3 mg/dl Bilirubin level is admitted in the nursery (NICU) for the management of hyperbilirubinaemia. The baby need for phototherapy. Which of the following nursing intervention is correct?
Options:
a. Change position every 2 hourly
b. Check activity every 4 hourly
c. Remove eye shields twice in a day
d. Provide breast feeding every 4 hourly
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: During phototherapy, change position every 2 hours.
115. In a patient an IV cannula is inserted in external jugular vein (EJV) and administered a drug. Which is a correct pathway of the drug to reach up to the heart?
Options:
a. EJV – Subclavian vein Brachiocephalic vein – Heart
b. EJV – IJV – Brachiocephalic vein – Heart
c. EJV – Brachiocephalic vein – Heart
d. EJV – IJV – Subclavian vein – Brachiocephalic vein Heart
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: EJV → Subclavian vein → Brachiocephalic vein → Heart.
116. What would be the appropriate teaching to a mother in post-partum period about breast feeding for her child?
Options:
a. Every 2-3 hour
b. When baby cry
c. Every 6 hour
d. When baby sleep
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Breastfeed every 2–3 hours in postpartum period.
117. Which of the following is an early symptom of meningitis seen in neonates?
Options:
a. Poor feeding
b. Bulging fontanel
c. Headache
d. High pitch cry
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Poor feeding is an early sign of neonatal meningitis.
118. Identify the level of jaundice correlates in below depicted photograph with TSB level at 3 point (as per Kramer’s zones)?
Options:
a. 4-8 mg/dl
b. 8-16 mg/dl
c. 5-12 mg/dl
d. 11-20 mg/dl
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Kramer’s zone 3 (lower trunk/thighs) = 8–16 mg/dl.
119. A patient brought into the emergency department with chest injury. After assessment finding reveals that ribs are fractured, active bleeding, SpO2 98%, BP 120/77 mm hg. What would be the priority action?
Options:
a. Control of bleeding
b. Treat rib fracture
c. Administer O2
d. Stabilization of the spine
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Active bleeding is priority (ABCs: bleeding control before airway/breathing).
120. Which of the following test used to differentiate inguinal hernia and Hydrocele?
Options:
a. Three finger test
b. Ring test
c. Deep ring occlusion test
d. Transillumination test
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Transillumination test: hydrocele transilluminates, hernia does not.
121. Identify the correct cleaning process of urethral meatus for female catheterization
Options:
a. Labia minora front to back
b. Labia majora back to front
c. Whole perineum
d. Labia minora back to front
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Clean labia minora front to back.
122. Which of the following drug should not be used in a patient with renal failure?
Options:
a. Spironolactone
b. Furosemide
c. Sodium Bicarbonate
d. Chlorithiazide
Answer Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Spironolactone contraindicated in renal failure (risk of hyperkalemia)
123. The clinical finding polyuria would not be seen in?
Options:
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Glomerulonephritis
d. Pyelonephritis
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Glomerulonephritis causes oliguria, not polyuria.
124. All of the following options are true related to bed sore, EXCEPT?
Options:
a. Early bed sore can treat with care
b. Most common site for bed sore is sacrum
c. Air mattress cannot reduce the chance of bed sore
d. Change the client position every 2 hourly
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Air mattress can reduce pressure sore risk
125. Clinical manifestations of bed sore include skin breaks, abrasion, blister, or shallow crater, oedema, and infection are characteristics of?
Options:
a. Stage I pressure ulcer
b. Stage IV pressure ulcer
c. Stage III pressure ulcer
d. Stage II pressure ulcer
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Stage II: partial thickness loss, blister, shallow crater
126. The inferior epigastric artery is the branch of?
Options:
a. External iliac artery
b. Internal iliac artery
c. Obstructer artery
d. Cealiac trunk
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Inferior epigastric artery branches from external iliac artery
127. Recommended disinfectant used for handling spills is?
Options:
a. 10% sodium hypochlorite
b. 1% sodium hypochlorite
c. 5% Bleach solution
d. 2% Bleach solution
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: For small spills, use 1% sodium hypochlorite
128. When evaluating a client with symptoms of shock, it is important for the nurse to differentiate between neurogenic and hypovolemic shock. The symptoms of neurogenic shock differ from hypovolemic shock in that?
Options:
a. In neurogenic shock, the skin is warm and dry
b. In hypovolemic shock, there is a bradycardia
c. In hypovolemic shock, capillary refill is less than 2 seconds
d. In neurogenic shock, there is delayed capillary refill
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Neurogenic shock: warm, dry skin (vasodilation). Hypovolemic: cool, clammy
129. Split thickness grafting is?
Options:
a. Epidermis and part of dermis
b. Epidermis and whole of dermis
c. Epidermis and part of dermis underlying structure
d. Epidermis
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Split-thickness graft includes epidermis and part of dermis.
130. The nurse is caring a patient with tracheoesophageal fistula. Which of the following position given to the patient?
Options:
a. Head elevation 30°
b. Prone position
c. Side line
d. Supine position
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Tracheoesophageal fistula: head elevated 30–45° to prevent aspiration.
131. All of the following symptoms would be seen in a client with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS), EXCEPT?
Options:
a. Nasal flaring
b. Tachypnea
c. Grunting sound
d. Sub costal retraction
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: RDS symptoms: nasal flaring, tachypnea, grunting. Subcostal retraction is not typical.
132. A 2 years old child brought to an emergency department with complains of frequently episodes of lose stool, lethargy, weakness. The physical assessment findings reveals poor skin turgor, dry and dull mucous membrane and rapid heartbeat. The child is having severe dehydration. Which is the best management of fluid resuscitation for the child?
Options:
a. 30 ml/kg/body weight initial 60 minutes then 70 ml/kg/body weight in 5 hr
b. 50 ml/kg/body weight initial 30 minute then 70 ml/kg/body weight in 2.30 hr
c. 30 ml/kg/body weight initial 30 minute then 70 ml/kg/body weight in 2.30 hr
d. 20 ml/kg/body weight bolus and then 70 ml/kg/body weight in 5 hours
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: For severe dehydration: 30 ml/kg in first 60 min, then 70 ml/kg over next 5 hours.
133. In the below depicted pedigree of genetic disorders, Identify the disorder?
Options:
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. X-Linked disorder
d. X-Linked dominant
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Pedigree shows autosomal dominant pattern.
134. Which of the following are features of mental health care act 2017, except?
Options:
a. Provision of Advance directive
b. ECT is not recommended for older adults
c. Attempt to commit suicide not an offence
d. Establishment of central mental health authority
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: MHCA 2017 does not restrict ECT by age; it restricts unmodified ECT
135. TRUE statement about surgical sutures, EXCEPT?
Options:
a. Vicryl is a braided and absorbable suture
b. Silk is a braided and non absorbable suture
c. Monocryl is a absorbable suture
d. Nylon is a polypropylene and absorbable suture
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Nylon is non-absorbable, not polypropylene.
136. Location for chest compression during neonatal resuscitation is?
Options:
a. lower middle one third of sternum
b. Lower half of sternum
c. Just below the nipple line
d. Between xiphoid process
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Neonatal chest compression: lower middle one-third of sternum.
137. A child is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of infective endocarditis. The child has been experiencing fever, malaise, anorexia, and a headache. The nurse knows that most common causative organism of infective endocarditis is?
Options:
a. Streptococcus viridans
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Group b haemophilus influenza
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Most common cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis: Streptococcus viridans
138. The nurse provides care for a patient with an endotracheal tube and positive pressure mechanical ventilation. Which of the following observation acquires intervention by the nurse?
Options:
a. The intern nurse drains ventilator tubing condensation towards the endotracheal tube connection
b. The patient gags and bites the endotracheal tube
c. The intern nurse reports that the patient’s weight has increased 1.36 kg over past 72 hours
d. The endotracheal tube cuff pressure is 22 cm H2O
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Weight gain may indicate fluid overload; requires intervention.
139. In a randomized trial comparing the efficacy of two anti-diabetic drugs, no significant difference was found between the two drugs. However, in reality, there was a significant difference in the two drugs. This is an example of?
Options:
a. Beta error
b. Alpha error
c. 1-Alpha error
d. 1-Beta error
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Beta error: failing to reject a false null hypothesis (false negative).
140. Which of the following is a most common cause of pyogenic meningitis in older adults?
Options:
a. Neisseria meningitis
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Beta haemolytic streptococcus
d. Hemophilus influenza type B
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Streptococcus pneumoniae is most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults.
141. For the management of nocturnal angina, nitroglycerine (NTG) tablet given at?
Options:
a. Evening time
b. Bed time
c. Morning
d. At Any time
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Nocturnal angina: NTG at bedtime.
142. Topical medicine atropine sulphate is used in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT?
Options:
a. Corneal ulcer
b. Closer angle Glaucoma
c. Uveitis
d. Cataract
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Atropine contraindicated in angle-closure glaucoma (can worsen it).
143. Which statement is suitable for ranitidine (rantac), EXCEPT?
Options:
a. Side effect of rantac is diarrhea
b. Confusion develop with rantac
c. Taken with antacid
d. Smoking affect the action of rantac
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Ranitidine is not typically taken with antacid; antacids can reduce absorption.
144. Muscle tone of lower esophageal sphincter (LOS) is maintained by?
Options:
a. Acetylcholine
b. Nitric oxide
c. Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
d. Pancreatic enzymes
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Acetylcholine maintains LOS contraction/tone.
145. Parkland formula for fluid calculation in burn patients should be calculated by?
Options:
a. 4 ml RL/kg/TBSA
b. 3 ml RL/kg/TBSA
c. 2 ml RL/kg/TBSA
d. 1 ml RL/kg/TBSA
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Parkland formula: 4 ml RL × kg × %TBSA burned.
146. A nurse is going to drawing capillary blood by heel prick in a new born for blood glucose estimation. The nurse cleans the site with alcohol and then pricks the needle. Which of the following statements CORRECT?
Options:
a. Cleaning with alcohol is not necessary
b. Wipe off first drop because alcohol can give false elevated reading
c. Check blood glucose 2 times
d. Dry the cleaned area with a wet cotton sponge
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Wipe first drop to avoid alcohol contamination and false high reading.
147. A nurse is assessing a female patient in post partum period with her uterus is soft, and shifted towards right side, fundus 2 fingers above umbilicus. Which of the following is the possible cause of this condition?
Options:
a. Normal
b. Involution
c. Bladder distension
d. Infection
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Boggy uterus displaced to right suggests bladder distension
148. A rural population is 3000. 500 having fever and symptoms like malaria which is only 30 cases is positive of malaria. What is the API of this rural population?
Options:
a. 0.05
b. 0.01
c. 0.1
d. 6
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: API = (confirmed cases/population) × 1000 = (30/3000)×1000 = 10 per 1000 = 0.01.
149. A child is having difficulties in social interaction and communication, stereotype behaviours, self injuries behavior, with delayed speech. The probable diagnosis is?
Options:
a. Dyslexia
b. Autism
c. ADHD
d. TIC Disorder
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Symptoms suggest autism spectrum disorder.
150. In a patient with chest pain which is suggestive of myocardial infarction?
Options:
a. Severe pain
b. Vomiting and sweating
c. Pain persist for 1 week
d. Sharp pain like knife which can radiate to jaw and shoulder
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: MI pain: sharp, radiating to jaw/shoulder, not just severity.
151. In Under Five Clinic program monitors children up to age of?
Options:
a. 1-5 year
b. 0-5 year
c. 3-5year
d. None of the above
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Under Five Clinic: children 0–5 years.
152. A 43 years old male patient, who has severe dyspnoea, comes into the OPD and stating I stop for breath after walking about 100 meters or after a few minutes on level ground. Based on patient’s information, identify the grade of dyspnoea on mMRC scale?
Options:
a. Grade-01
b. Grade-02
c. Grade-03
d. Grade-04
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: mMRC grade 3: stops after walking 100 yards or few minutes on level.
153. Which of the following is a most clinical manifestation of VP shunt failure in an infant?
Options:
a. Poor feeding
b. Headache
c. Alteration in LOC
d. Lack of appetite
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: VP shunt failure in infants: poor feeding is common early sign.
154. Which of the following components is NOT included in metrics of high quality CPR?
Options:
a. Chest compression fraction >80%
b. Compression rate of 100-120/min
c. No excessive ventilation
d. Rescuer should change position every 5 minutes
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Changing position every 5 minutes is not a quality metric; change every 2 minutes.
155. Which of the following is best technique for urine sample collection in a patient who is having indwelling urinary catheter?
Options:
a. First morning specimen
b. Remove the catheter then collect the urine and re-connect the catheter
c. Aspirate the urine form catheter
d. Supra pubic aspiration
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: For catheterized patient, aspirate urine from catheter port.
156. Identify the CORRECT matching:
S.N. Type of study Code Description
A Cross-Sectional Study I An observational studies that are aimed at objective examination and assessment – analysis – of causal relationships between exposure to potential disease determinants and subsequent disease
B Analytical Study II A type of observational study that involves collecting date from many different individuals at a specific point of time.
C Longitudinal Study III An observational study that involves repeatedly examining the same subjects to detect changes that may occurs over a period of time.
Options:
a. A-I, B-II, C-III
b. A-II, B-I, C-III
c. A-III, B-II, C-I
d. A-II, B-III, C-II
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: A-II (Cross-sectional = point in time), B-I (Analytical = causal), C-III (Longitudinal = repeated measures).
157. A patient comes into the emergency department with trauma of chest and ribs and upper limb fracture. There is active bleeding from the trauma site. What would be the priority nursing action?
Options:
a. Control the bleeding
b. Treat rib fracture
c. Place the arm in proper position
d. Realign the fracture
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Active bleeding is priority (ABCs).
158. In which of the following clinical condition high flow oxygen cannot be given?
Options:
a. Pneumonia
b. Asthma
c. TOF
d. ARDS
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF): high-flow oxygen can worsen spell (increase pulmonary outflow obstruction).
159. Consider the following fertility related statistics. The mortality rate of women in reproductive age is NOT taken into consideration while calculating which of these statistics?
A. Total fertility rate
B. Gross reproduction rate
C. Net reproduction rate
D. General fertility rate
Options:
a. A, B, and C
b. A, C, and D
c. B, C, and D
d. A, B, and D
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Net reproduction rate considers mortality; others do not.
160. Which of the following is a below developmental task in a 3 year old child?
Options:
a. Not use proper spoon
b. Make square or copy a square
c. Standing on one foot
d. Stair up & down
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: By age 3, child should use spoon properly; not using is delayed.
161. IQ level 110, approximately 95% distribution is?
Options:
a. 80-130
b. 100-120
c. 100-220
d. 90-110
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: IQ 110 is within average range (100–120).
162. A client suffering from paranoid and auditory hallucination and nurse check the last 14 days history and found that patient not wear cloth and not have sufficient food. It would be diagnosed as?
Options:
a. Schizophrenia
b. Schizo affective disorder
c. Schizotypal disorder
d. Psycho affective disorder
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Paranoid + hallucinations + self-neglect = schizophrenia.
Section B: Non-Tech MCQs
163. Which of the following planet is known as “blue planet”?
Options:
a. Saturn
b. Earth
c. Mars
d. Jupiter
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Earth is the Blue Planet.
164. Fill in the blank with the relevant preposition- The cake was cut _ a knife.
Options:
a. By
b. Upon
c. With
d. At
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: “Cut with a knife” is correct.
165. Which of the following country is not included in G-20?
Options:
a. Brazil
b. Canada
c. Pakistan
d. China
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Pakistan is not a G20 member.
166. Which state hosted Snow Festival (Winter Carnival) in 2023?
Options:
a. Jammu & Kashmir
b. Ladakh
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Sikkim
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: Snow Festival 2023 in Jammu & Kashmir.
167. What is the Synonym of ESSENTIAL?
Options:
a. Indispensable
b. Necessary
c. Needed
d. Imperative
View Answer
Correct Answer: b
Note: Necessary is a synonym for essential.
168. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word-PRECISE
Options:
a. Actual
b. Correct
c. Definite
d. Vague
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Vague is opposite of precise.
169. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. 8, 9, 145
Options:
a. 10, 11, 121
b. 7, 8, 117
c. 6, 8, 104
d. 6, 7, 85
View Answer
Correct Answer: d
Note: Pattern: a^2 + b^2 = c . 8^2 + 9^2 = 145 . 6^2 + 7^2 = 85 .
170. Star’s related to ‘Galaxy’ in the same way as ‘Flower’ is related to
Options:
a. Jasmine
b. Blossom
c. Bouquet
d. Petal
View Answer
Correct Answer: c
Note: Star is part of Galaxy; Flower is part of Bouquet.
171. Find out that word where the spelling is correct?
Options:
a. Puncture
b. Punchure
c. Punture
d. Punctur
View Answer
Correct Answer: a
Note: “Puncture” is correct spelling.
